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Interesting and plausible arguments.
Unanswered questions:
- Was the British government already subverted by Sabbatean-Frankists? (Rothschild.)
- Was not the American side of the argument already subverted? (Wiseman/Bankers.)
- Does Zionism play into it as a dialectical foil for Communism? … the need for suffering as a condition of a Jewish state?
- Was it not the Americans through Wiseman/Wilson that Trotsky received a passport? Wilson already being in the pocket of these same forces?
- Can it be said that British and American interests were already in lockstep at this point?
- Does the Balfour letter negate much of the OPs discussion on Turkey?
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